Talmud Builders

    Kiddushin 5a

    Chapter 1 - HaIshah Nikneit

    גם: קידושין דף ה׳ ע״א, פרק א׳ האשה נקנית

    English translation - Kiddushin 5a

    Translation: William Davidson Edition - English. Read alongside the Aramaic below; numbers match the passages of the daf.

    1The baraita continues to discuss the modes of betrothal: And from where is it derived that a woman can be acquired even by means of a document? The Gemara answers: This is a logical derivation, made by an a fortiori inference: And if money, which does not release a woman from her husband, nevertheless can bring her into a husband’s domain by betrothal, is it not logical that a document, which releases a woman from her husband in the form of a bill of divorce, can bring her into a husband’s domain by betrothal?

    2The Gemara refutes this claim: What is unique about money is that it can effect acquisition in many contexts, as one can redeem with it consecrated property and second tithe. Will you say that the same also applies to a document, with which one cannot redeem consecrated property and second tithe? The proof that one may redeem consecrated property only by means of money is that it is written: “And he will give the money and it will be assured to him” (see Leviticus 27:19). Consequently, this halakha cannot be derived by logical reasoning.

    3Therefore, the verse states: “And she leaves his house and goes and becomes another man’s wife” (Deuteronomy 24:2). This verse juxtaposes becoming, i.e., betrothal, to leaving, i.e., divorce. Just as leaving is performed through a document, i.e., a bill of divorce, so too, becoming can be performed through a document. The Gemara asks: And let one also juxtapose leaving to becoming, in the opposite direction: Just as becoming is performed through money, so too, leaving can be effected through money.

    4Abaye says: If so, people will say: Money brings in and money releases; if so, can an advocate [ saneigor ] become a prosecutor [ kateigor ]? It is improper for the same mode that draws man and woman together to be used for the termination of their relationship. The Gemara asks: If so, then with regard to a document too, they will say: A document brings in and a document releases; if so, can a prosecutor become an advocate?

    5The Gemara answers: The words of this betrothal document are discrete, i.e., distinct, and the words of this divorce document are discrete, i.e., the two documents differ in content. The Gemara asks: Here too, this money is discrete and this money is discrete, as one coin is for the betrothal and a different coin is used for the divorce. The Gemara answers: In any event, the coin itself is one, i.e., there is no noticeable difference between the coin used for betrothal and one that would be used for divorce. The same cannot be said with regard to documents, as particular texts serve specific purposes, and the same document could not be used for both betrothal and divorce.

    6Rava said: The halakha that a woman cannot be divorced by means of money is derived from a different source. The verse states: “And he writes her a scroll of severance” (Deuteronomy 24:3). This indicates that a woman is divorced only through writing and she is not divorced through money. The Gemara asks: But as this point is not stated explicitly and is inferred from the verse, one can instead say the following interpretation: She is divorced through writing, and she is not betrothed through writing. The Gemara rejects this suggestion. It is written: “And she leaves and becomes” (Deuteronomy 24:2), which juxtaposes betrothal to divorce, indicating that betrothal can be effected with a document.

    7The Gemara asks: And what did you see that you interpreted the verses in this manner? One can say the reverse, that the juxtaposition between betrothal and divorce teaches that in both cases money is effective, while the verse: “And he writes her,” means that she can be divorced but not betrothed through writing. The Gemara answers: It stands to reason that when the verse is referring to divorce it excludes a different mode of divorce. Would a verse be referring to divorce and exclude a mode of betrothal?

    8The Gemara asks: And according to the opinion of Rabbi Yosei HaGelili, who derives a different exposition from this verse, from where does he derive that a woman cannot be divorced through money? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “A scroll of severance,” which teaches: A scroll, i.e., a written document, severs her from her husband, and nothing else severs her from him.

    9The Gemara asks: And with regard to the Rabbis, who disagree with Rabbi Yosei HaGelili, what do they do with this verse: “A scroll of severance”? How do they interpret it? The Gemara answers: They require it for the halakha that a document of divorce must be a matter that entirely severs him from her. The text of the bill of divorce must completely terminate the relationship between them.

    10This is as it is taught in a baraita ( Tosefta , Gittin 5:12) that if a husband says to his wife: This is your bill of divorce on the condition that you will not ever drink wine, or: On the condition that you will never go to your father’s house, that is not an act of severance, as she remains restricted by him indefinitely. If he stipulates that she may not do so for thirty days, that is an act of severance. The Rabbis derive from the term severance that any indefinite condition prevents the divorce from taking effect.

    11The Gemara asks: And Rabbi Yosei HaGelili, from where does he derive this requirement that a bill of divorce must completely sever the ties between husband and wife? The Gemara answers that he derives it from the fact that the verse does not utilize the basic form of the word severance, i.e., karet , but rather its conjugate, keritut . This indicates an additional principle that is derived from the term. The Gemara asks: And what do the other Sages derive from the seemingly superfluous use of this word? The Gemara answers: They do not interpret the distinction between karet and keritut .

    12§ The Gemara asks: It has been shown that one mode of betrothal cannot be derived from another mode of betrothal, as explained in the baraita , but why not let one be derived from the other two methods? The Gemara answers: This is not possible, as, which method will be derived from the others? If you say: Let the Merciful One not write that a woman can be betrothed through a document, and one can derive this mode of acquisition from these modes of acquisition, i.e., intercourse and money, this claim can be refuted. What is unique about these other modes is that their benefit is great, relative to a document, as a woman experiences no enjoyment upon receiving a document.

    13And if you say: Let the Merciful One not write that a woman can be acquired through sexual intercourse, and one can derive this mode from these modes of acquisition, i.e., money and a document, this too is not possible, as, what is unique about these modes of betrothal is that their acquisition is great. In other words, these modes of acquisition apply in many other situations. Therefore, one cannot derive the unusual acquisition of sexual intercourse from these methods.

    14If you say: Let the Merciful One not write that a woman can be acquired through money, and one can derive this mode from these other modes of acquisition, this is also not possible, as what is unique about these is that they apply against her will. A yavam acquires a yevama through intercourse even against her will, while a document releases a woman from marriage without her consent in the case of a bill of divorce.

    15And if you would say that money also applies against her will, in the case of a Hebrew maidservant, whose father can sell her to a master without her consent, enabling one to therefore derive from the other two modes of acquisition, i.e., intercourse and a document, that a woman can be acquired through money, this opinion can be refuted as well: In any event, with regard to marriage, we do not find a case in which a woman can be acquired through money against her will. Consequently, none of these modes of acquisition can be derived from any of the others.

    16§ Rav Huna says: The ceremony of the wedding canopy effects acquisition of the woman, as is derived through an a fortiori inference: If money, which does not enable the wife to partake of teruma , as the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest may not yet partake of teruma , effects acquisition of a woman for betrothal, is it not logical that a wedding canopy, which enables her to partake of teruma , as once a woman has entered the wedding canopy it is permitted for her to partake of teruma due to her husband the priest, should also effect acquisition of a woman by her husband?

    17The Gemara asks: And does betrothal money not enable a woman to partake of teruma ? But didn’t Ulla say: By Torah law the daughter of a non-priest who is betrothed to a priest may partake of teruma immediately upon her betrothal, as it is stated: “But if a priest buy any soul, the acquisition of his money, he may eat of it” (Leviticus 22:11), and this woman is considered the acquisition of his money.

    18And what is the reason that the Sages said that she may not partake of teruma ? It is a rabbinic decree lest they pour her a cup of teruma wine in her father’s house, where she is staying before her marriage, and she give to her brothers and sisters to drink, as it is prohibited for them to partake of teruma . If so, by Torah law a woman may partake of teruma once she has been betrothed with money. Consequently, the above a fortiori inference that entering a wedding canopy can effect betrothal is invalid.

    19Rather, the Gemara emends Rav Huna’s statement and says that he refutes the opinion that entering a wedding canopy does not effect betrothal as follows: If money, which does not complete the acquisition of a woman, as a young woman remains under her father’s authority with regard to certain issues, nevertheless effects acquisition of her for the stage of betrothal,

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    Rashi

    A document, with which one cannot redeem consecrated property - if he wrote a document to the treasurer drawing on the funds for redeeming consecrated property, his consecrated property is not thereby redeemed, since we require "he will give the money and it will be assured to him." [Kiddushin 29a:1]

    The words of this document are discrete and the words of this document are discrete - in one is written of entering and the other expresses exiting.

    This money is discrete - when he gives it, he expresses the purpose for which he is giving it.

    Is one - there is nothing mentioned on [the coin] as to whether it is for the purpose of pushing out or taking in.

    Referring to divorce and excluding [a mode of] betrothal - [this is stated] as a [rhetorical] question.

    And according to Rabbi Yosei HaGelili, who derives a different exposition from this verse - in the second chapter of Gittin [Gittin 21b:3].

    A matter that severs - that the scroll should separate them, and not that there should be any stipulation in it that [continues to] bind them together.

    That is not severance - since she is bound to him, for the rest of her days, to fulfill this condition because of him.

    That is severance - it even [counts as severance] right away, since she will fulfill his condition and go [her own way], since these stipulations can eventually lead to a [complete] separation.

    From "karet" [versus] "keritut" - since it ought to have been written "sefer karet", meaning that the scroll severs her; this additional exposition is warranted by the more-elaborate term [that the verse employed, namely: "keritut"].

    One mode [of betrothal] cannot be derived from another [mode of betrothal], etc. - [the Gemara] asks as follows: the Tanna who earlier asked regarding each [method of betrothal] "can't it be derived using a logical derivation", and who then concluded that they cannot be derived logically, but require scriptural support -- why do we require scriptural support for each of them? Granted that one mode cannot be derived logically from another; but let one mode be derived from two others using the "just as we find in the common denominator of these" argument: that they are capable of acquiring in general and are capable of acquiring here [for betrothal]. "Then I shall even bring" the third [mode and derive its effectiveness from the other two]. All [three modes] are capable of acquiring in other circumstances: money and documents acquire a Hebrew maidservant, as will be stated later on [Kiddushin 14b] and sexual intercourse acquires a yevama.

    Money and intercourse; their benefit is great - but a document of betrothal does not have any benefit, all that is written in it is "you are betrothed to me".

    Their acquisition is great - since they [can be used to] acquire land and slaves.

    Against her will - intercourse acquires in the case of a yevama against her will, which we derive in Yevamot [Yevamot 54a:3] from "her brother-in-law" [Deuteronomy 25:5]. Similarly, a document divorces a woman from her husband against her will.

    Against her will, in the case of a Hebrew maidservant - as her father can sell her without her knowledge.

    Money, which does not enable [the wife] to partake of teruma - if she is betrothed to a priest, as is taught in a Mishna in Ketubot [Ketubot 57b:1]: "A woman may not partake of teruma until she has actually entered the wedding canopy"

    Which does not complete [the acquisition of a woman] - to remove her from her father's domain [as pertains to her father's rights] to her handiwork and her inheritance.

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    קידושין ה עמוד א

    1ומנין שאף בשטר? ודין הוא: ומה כסף, שאין מוציא מכניס, שטר, שמוציא אינו דין שמכניס?

    2מה לכסף, שכן פודין בו הקדש ומעשר שני. תאמר שטר, שאין פודין בו הקדש ומעשר שני, דכתיב: ״(ויקרא כז״, יט) ״ונתן הכסף וקם לו״!

    3אמר קרא: ״(דברים כד״, ב) ״ויצאה״ ״והיתה״ מקיש הויה ליציאה: מה יציאה בשטר אף הויה נמי בשטר. ואקיש נמי, יציאה להויה: מה הויה בכסף אף יציאה בכסף!

    4אמר אביי: יאמרו: כסף מכניס, כסף מוציא, סניגור יעשה קטיגור? אי הכי, שטר נמי יאמרו: שטר מוציא, שטר מכניס, קטיגור יעשה סניגור?

    5מילי דהאי שטרא לחוד ומילי דהאי שטרא לחוד. הכא נמי, האי כספא לחוד והאי כספא לחוד! טיבעא מיהא חד הוא.

    6רבא אמר: אמר קרא: ״(דברים כד״, א) ״וכתב לה״ בכתיב״ה מתגרשת״, ואינה מתגרשת בכסף. ואימא: בכתיב״ה מתגרשת ואינה מתקדשת בכתיבה״! הא כתיב ״(דברים כד״, ב) ״ויצאה״ ״והיתה״ מקיש וכו'.

    7ומה ראית? מסתברא קאי בגירושין ממעט גירושין, קאי בגירושין וממעט קידושין?!

    8ולרבי יוסי הגלילי, דאפיק ליה להאי קרא לדרשא אחרינא, שאינה מתגרשת בכסף מנא ליה? אמר קרא: ״(דברים כד״, א) ספר כריתות. ספר כורתה ואין דבר אחר כורתה׃

    9ורבנן האי כריתות מאי עבדי ליה מיבעי ליה לדבר הכורת בינו לבינה׃

    10כדתניא הרי זה גיטיך ע"מ שלא תשתי יין על מנת שלא תלכי לבית אביך לעולם אין זה כריתות כל שלשים יום הרי זה כריתות׃

    11ורבי יוסי הגלילי מכרת כריתות קא נפקא ליה ורבנן כרת כריתות לא משמע להו׃

    12חדא מחדא לא אתיא תיתי חדא מתרתי הי תיתי לא ליכתוב רחמנא בשטר ותיתי מהנך מה להנך שכן הנאתן מרובה׃

    13לא ניכתוב רחמנא בביאה ותיתי מהנך מה להנך שכן קנינן מרובה׃

    14לא ניכתוב רחמנא בכסף ותיתי מהנך מה להנך שכן ישנן בע"כ׃

    15וכ"ת כסף נמי בע"כ באמה העבריה באישות מיהא לא אשכחן:

    16אמר רב הונא חופה קונה, מקל וחומר ומה כסף שאינו מאכיל בתרומה קונה חופה שמאכלת בתרומה אינו דין שתקנה׃

    17וכסף אינו מאכיל והאמר עולא דבר תורה ארוסה בת ישראל אוכלת בתרומה שנאמר ״(ויקרא כב״, יא) וכהן כי יקנה נפש קנין כספו והאי קנין כספו הוא׃

    18ומה טעם אמרו אינה אוכלת גזירה שמא ימזגו לה כוס בבית אביה ותשקנו לאחיה ולאחותיה׃

    19אלא פריך הכי ומה כסף שאינו גומר קונה׃

    Tosafot

    "How do we know [a wife can be acquired] with a contract?" And it is not possible to say this from the ק״ו of Hebrew slavegirl who isn't acquired with sex but is acquired with a contract. Firstly because we derive the slavegirl herself from the hekesh to "another" (=a wife) later (Kiddushin 16a where we derive that a Hebrew slavegirl can be acquired with a contract from the wife). And even according to Rav Hisda who derives it (on Kiddushin 16a) from "'She shall not go out like slaves go out' (Shemot 21:7), but she can be acquired with the acquisition of slaves" [i.e. with a contract and therefore he does not derive this law for the slavegirl from the law of the wife], it is [still] possible to object [to the ק״ו] as above [on 4b where they pointed out] "that she [the Hebrew slavegirl] can go out with money [unlike the wife]"! Secondly, since according to Rav Hisda the father writes [the contract for the Hebrew slavegirl], it is not possible to learn [from this] about a wife who is not acquired in this way since the husband writes [the contract].

    "For [with money] they can redeem hekdesh and tithe" - [Problem:] But if you say: All of this I can put into the ק״ו—Just as money, even though with it they can redeem hekdesh and tithe but can't go out [of the marriage with it] and even so can enter [the marriage with it], a contract, which even though they can't redeem with it hekdesh, she can go out, isn't it logical that she should be able to enter?! Solution: A stringency written in the verse it is not possible to combine it into the ק״ו [and the Torah excludes non-money means of redemption], because only a logical stringency is able to be put into the ק״ו, one that is written we have to say that [the Torah] causes it to be effective [it doesn't interact with other logical bases we might use for a ק״ו]. [Problem:] But if you say: Let us say a ק״ו from land [with which] they can't go out and even so can enter!—i.e. a person is allowed to betroth a wife with land but can't divorce her with land—and there it wouldn't be possible to object "For [with money] they can redeem hekdesh" [so instead of comparing contract to money which is broken by the baraita with the fact that money is stronger (can redeem), why don't we compare contract to land which is not stronger in this way (can't redeem)]! Solution: It is possible to object [to this]: Land can be acquired with moveable objects, can you say the same with a contract [so land is stronger in a different way and this would break this tentative ק״ו]!? [Problem:] But if you say: Moveable objects will break [this breakage of the ק״ו] since they cannot be acquired with [other] moveable objects, they can't leave, but they can enter, so I should be able to include contract! Solution: With moveable objects they redeem hekdesh [so we would be back to the exact same problem we had with money].

    "Just as 'being' is with money so too 'her leaving' is with money!?" [The question is: We suggested to apply this hekesh for contract to money, why didn't we try to apply this hekesh to sex as well?] On the topic of sex it would be impossible to say "Just as 'being' is with sex so too 'her leaving' is with sex" since he has to distance himself from her to divorce her, and further because a common [reason for divorce is] he found in her ervat davar (e.g. adultery) in which case he would have to separate.

    "A defence attorney becomes a prosecuting attorney" [when money is the same thing that gets you in and out of the marriage]. Problem: If this is true, how could [the Talmud] say above: "A Hebrew slavegirl that goes out with money, isn't it logical that she should be acquired with money"? On the contrary, it is a disadvantage since we don't want a prosecuting attorney to become a defence attorney! Solution: For a Hebrew slavegirl it is not possible to say this since, originally, when her father sold her into slavery he received the money from the master, and if so when [the father] wants to redeem her, it is logical that the master should receive the money [it's a transaction, it doesn't make it look like she goes out and comes in with the exact same thing]. But a man that betroths a wife, everything comes through him, whether betrothal or divorce, so there it is relevant to object "They will say 'Money causes [her] to enter...' etc." [The money regarding a wife's entering or leaving never changes hands, it is the husband's throughout].

    "[The verse] is about divorce [so comes to] exclude something else about divorce" [supporting Rava]. But it would not be logical to say [that the verse] is about writing [so comes to] exclude something else about writing [which would be against Rava], since the plain sense of the verse implies that it comes to say [he can divorce her] only with writing, for it says "If she didn't find favour in his eyes, and he wrote for her", this implies that it is specifically about this topic. [In other words: the verse is indeed primarily about divorce but it just tells you that methods not involving writing are wrong.]

    "'With the understanding that you will not go to your father's house ever'—this is not a get". Rashi's explanation: "All her days she is bound to uphold this condition on his account". Problem: Why shouldn't it be a get since, if her father dies, then she is able to enter the house and she is no longer bound to him, since after the death of her father it is not considered "her father's house", as we say in Nedarim 46a: "[Someone says to their fellow:] 'Konam is your house that I will not enter it'—if he [the house owner] dies or sells it, he is permitted [to enter it]" [which should be the case for the condition that the husband made the wife swear about her father's house]! Solution: It is called her father's house by all of her father's offspring even though he died, as it is written about Tamar, "Return as a widow to your father's house" (Bereishit 38:11), even though her father died as the verses prove.

    "But Rabbi Yose Ha-Gelili derives [the permanent conditions that interfere with the efficacy of a get in the baraita] from [the fact that the verse could have said sefer] karet [but instead said sefer] keritut". Problem: In chapter Ha-Megaresh (Gittin 83b) it said about the Rabbanan of Rabbi Elazar ben Azaryah [i.e. the majority opinion he disputed] that they do not make a derash with karet-keritut, and Rabbi Yose Ha-Gelili is included in the Rabbanan [since he is not Riva, he must be among the majority opinion against him]. But here it said that Rabbi Yose Ha-Gelili made a derash with karet-keritut! Solution: It didn't say "They don't learn it" but rather "They don't make a derash", i.e. [they don't derash] this derashah there [to learn דבר הכורת בינו לבינה] for they need it for the derashah here [to learn אין דבר אחר כורתה].

    "[If it weren't written about money, I would think] that [money too] is [effective] without her agreement [like sex and contract]". Rashi's explanation: Sex with a yevamah [is effective without her agreement], contract with divorce, and money with the Hebrew slavegirl. But this was a problem for Rabbenu Tam: If this is considered to be "without her agreement", that the father can sell his daughter without her agreement, if so, what does Rav Huna [mean when he, on Kiddushin 5b] says later that "Money regarding marriage nonetheless we do not find [it to be effective] without her agreement"—can't the father betroth his minor daughter with money without her agreement!? [Solution:] Rabbenu Tam said: Since the father stands in place of his daughter, this is not considered "without her agreement" since it is with the consent of the father. Problem: But if you say: If so, how can [the Talmud] say that money also is [effective] with a Hebrew slavegirl without her agreement—for the father sold her with his consent! Solution: This is what [the Talmud meant by its] object[ion with וכ״ת]: Money is [effective] with a slavegirl without her agreement in the case when the master designates [as a wife for his son] the Hebrew [slavegirl] with money from her acquisition with the agreement of neither the father nor the daughter. [Problem:] For it says later (Kiddushin 19a), "'That he did not designate her'—that he needs to designate her", [Solution: This] doesn't [mean] that he needs to do it with her consent but that he needs to inform her that she is designated for the sake of betrothal. [Problem:] And even though [the Talmud] said below "With marriage nonetheless we do not find [that money is effective without her agreement]", [Solution:] nevertheless, in a case like this where she is designated to be married, originally the money wasn't for marriage [it was for acquisition of a slavegirl]. There are those who return to Rashi's explanation that certainly the sale of a Hebrew slavegirl is called "without her agreement" for it is a debt for her since, if she were capable of decision-making [i.e. not a minor] she would not have agreed to [being sold]. But minor betrothal is not a debt to her like sale and in the end she will remain married, so if she were capable of decision-making she would have agreed [the assumption is that women would prefer to married than unmarried for financial and social security]—thus it is not really "without her agreement".

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    מה לכסף שכן פודין בו הקדשות ומעשרות אבל שטר אין פודין בו הקדשות. פירש רש"י ז"ל אם כתב שטר על מעות אין הקדש פדוי, דבעינן ונתן הכסף וקם לו. ואינו מחוור דבכי האי גוונא אפילו באשה אינה מקודשת, דאלו האומר לאשה הרי את מקודשת לי במנה ומחייב אני עצמי לך בשטר באותו מנה אינה מקודשת, דמנה אין כאן ושטר אין כאן, שהרי אינו מקדשה בשטר אלא במנה, ומנה אינו כן [ובעינן כי יקח איש כלומר בכסף]. וצריך עיון מההיא דכתב לכהן [חייב אני לך חמש סלעים דאינו פדוי]. דאפילו לכשיתן בקדושין (אם) [אינה] מקודשת, כיון שנתן לה לשם פרעון השטר ולא לשם קדושין של עכשיו וכדתנן בבכורות פרק יש בכור (בכורות נא, א) גבי פדיון הבן, ומייתינן לה בריש פרק הנושא את האשה (כתובות קב, א) כתב לכהן שהוא חייב לו ה' סלעים חייב ליתן לו ה' סלעים ובנו אינו פדוי, ואיתמר עלה אמר עולא דבר תורה בנו פדוי לכשיתן, ומה טעם אמרו אינו פדוי כדי שלא יאמרו פודין בשטרות, דאלמא אפילו דבר תורה אינו פדוי עכשיו אלא לכשיתן, והכא נמי אינה מקודשת עד שיתן, וההיא שעתא בכסף מתקדשת ולא בשטר. ומשום הכי נראה לי לפרש מה לשטר שכן אין פודין בו הקדשות, אם כתב בשטר הקדש זה פדוי אינו פדוי דומיא דשטר קדושין שכותב לה הרי את מקודשת לי.

    יאמרו כסף מכניס כסף מוציא יאמרו סניגור יעשה קטיגור - וכסף שמוציא באמה העבריה אינו קטיגור, דלא נכנסה אלא לשפחות.

    הא דתניא הרי זה גיטך על מנת שלא תלכי לבית אביך לעולם - כתבתיה בגיטין בפרק המביא (כא, ב) המגרש (פג, ב) בסייעתא דשמיא. ירושלמי (פ"א ה"א): אמר ר' יודן קל וחומר לבת חורין שתקנה בחזקה ודין הוא ומה אם שפחה כנענית שאינה נקנית בביאה נקנית בביאה נקנית בחזקה זו שהיא נקנית בביאה אינו דין שתקנה בחזקה, תלמוד לומר ובעלה בביאה היא נקנית ואינה נקנית בחזקה. פירוש משום דביאה מפורש בקרא בהדיא טפי מכסף ושטר נסיב ליה ובעלה, והכי קאמר תלמוד לומר כי יקח ובעלה ויצאה והיתה דכתיבי בקרא אבל חזקה דלא כתיבה מקל וחומר לא מרבינן לה. ומיהו לדידן דמהדרינן לרבויי קניות (מכל מקום) מקל וחומר בגמרא, מקל וחומר דשפחה לא אתיא, דאיכא למפרך מת לשפחה כנענית שאין קנינה לשם אישות כדפרכינן באמה העבריה. כך נראה לי.

    כסף נמי איתיה באמה העבריה בעל כרחה - פירש רש"י ז"ל שכן אביה מוכרה בעל כרחה. ותימה הוא דכיון שהאב זכאי במכירתה ומדעתו מכרה דעת האב כדעתה וידו עדיפא מידה, שאם אין אתה אומר כן אף כסף באישות אשכחן בעל כרחה, שכן אב מקבל קדושיה בעל כרחה. ואם תאמר כסף בעל כרחה בעלמא לא אשכחן, וקדושי כסף אכתי לא קים לן, אם כן אף מדעתה באישות לא אשכחן. וקשה מזו פירוש רש"י לקמן (בע"ב) גבי הא דאמרינן גבי חופה מה להצד השוה שבהן שכן ישנן בעל כרחה, ביאה ביבמה ושטר בגרושין וכסף באמה העבריה שאביה מוכרה בעל כרחה. וזה קשה דאם כן אף חופה אשכחן בעל כרחה, שכן האב מוסרה לחופה שלא מדעתה כדאיתא בפרק נערה שנתפתתה (כתובות מז, א), ועוד דהיכי קאמר באישות בעל כרחה לא אשכחן, דהא אשכחן בקדושין בין בקטנה בין בנערה. ותירצו בתוס' דכסף דקדושין וחופה לא חשיבי בעל כרחה, דאנן סהדי דמינח ניחא לה, והיינו דאמרינן הכא ולקמן דכסף באישות בעל כרחה לא אשכחן, ואמרינן לקמן דחופה בעל כרחה לא אשכחן. ואם תאמר והא איכא שמסרה למנוול ומוכה שחין, ואע"פ שעומדת וצווחת, מסתברא דאף זו מינח ניחא לה כדריש לקיש דאמר טב למיתב טן דו מלמיתב ארמלי וכדאמרינן ביבמות שלהי האשה רבה (קיח, ב) המזכה גט לאשות במקום קטטה מהו ואסיקנא טב למיתב טן דו ואמרינן (כתובות עה, א) דשומשנא גברא סורסיא ביחרתא רמו לה, ותאנא כולן מזנות ותולות בבעליהן. אבל רבינו תם פירש כסף באמה העבריה בעל כרחה, שהאדון מיעדה בכסף שפחות בעל כרחה ובעל כרחו של אב, ואע"פ שמדעתו מכרה האב, הא לא מכרה הוא אלא לשפחות, ובשעת ייעוד מיהא אפילו בעל כרחו הוא קונה אותה, והתורה זכתה לו ביעוד. ודחי באישות מיהא בעל כרחו לא ארשכחן, דמכירה זו לשפחות היתה, מה שאין כן בכסף קדושי קטנה או נערה דעל ידי האב, דכיון שהאב מקבלן מדעתו ומרצונו לא קרינן ביה בעל כרחה, דדעת האב כדעתה. ואם תאמר כיון דיעוד בעל כרחה אשכחן, היכי אמרינן לקמן דחופה בעל כרחה לא אשכחן, הא דואי אשכחן, דיעוד לא ו נשואין עושה, ונמצא שלאחר יעוד כונסה אדון לחופה בעל כרחה. ותירצו בתוס' (ע"ב ד"ה אף) דחופה שלאחר יעוד אינה בעל כרחה כלל אלא צריך מדעת האב. ואם תאמר והא אמרינן בהמביא תניין (כא, ב) שליחות לקבלה נמי אשכחן בעל כרחה, שכן אב מקבל גט לבתו קטנה בעל כרחה, אלמא אע"פ שהוא מדעת האב חשבינן ליה בעל כרחה. יש לומר דהתם בעל כרחו ובעל כרחה קאמר, דכשם שהוא מתגרשת על ידה בעל כרחה כך היא מתגרשת על יד אביה בעל כרחו. אי נמי יש לומר דלגבי קדושין דאין לה יד כלל לקבל קדושיה אלא מדעת האב חשבינן דעת האב כדעתה דידו עדיפא מידה, אבל לגבי גיטין שהיא מתגרשת בין על ידה בין על ידי אביה דשתי ידים זוכות כאחת כדתנן בפרק התקבל (גיטין סד, ב) נערה המאורסה היא ואביה מקבלין את גיטה, ונערה לאו דוקא כדמוכח לקמן במכילתין (קידושין מד, ב) בהא דבעיא מינהי רבא מר"נ נערה מהו שתעשה שליח לקבל גיטה מיד בעלה, וכמו שכתבתי בפרק התקבל בסייעתא דשמיא, הלכך דעתה חשיב דעת, וכל שאינה רוצה להתגרש אע"פ שרצה האב וקבל לה גיטה חשבינן ליה בעל כרחה.

    וכסף אינו מאכיל בתרומה והאמר עולא דבר תורה ארוסה בת ישראל אוכלת בתרומה וכו'. קשיא לי אמאי שביק מתניתין דקתני בפרק אע"פ (כתובות נז, א) הגיע זמן ולא נישאו אוכלות משלו ואוכלות בתרומה ונסיב ליה מימרא דעולא. ויש לומר דהא דעולא עדיפי לה, דקאמר בהדיא דמדאורייתא משעת אירוסין קא אכלה ואינה צריכה להמתין כלל, דאלמא כספא מאכילתה בתרומה ואע"פ שלא הגיע זמנה ואין הבעל חייב במזונותיה, דאילו למתניתין שאינה אוכלה עד שיגיע זמנה איכא למימר שאינה אוכלת מחמת כספא אלא מפני הגעת זמנה, והואיל והבעל חייב מזונותיה כענין שאמרו בנדרים פרק נערה המאורסה דתנן התם (עג, ב) בוגרת ששהתה י"ב חדש ואלמנה ל' יום ר"א אומר הואיל ובעלה חייב במזונותיה מיפר, ואמרינן עלה בגמרא אמר רבה ר"א ומשנה ראשונה אמרו דבר אחד, הלכך הא דעולא עדיפא ליה. כך נראה לי.

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    Kiddushin 5a

    Kiddushin 5a. The full printed text of this folio side - 19 numbered segments, about 345 words - with the classic commentaries printed on the page.

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    Edition: Wikisource Talmud Bavli · Wording checked against the source on 07/09/2026